They might generally be require to demonstrate the machine's fairness ante facto , but not post facto. Here's some more information in support of AlmtyBob.

Read any of the industry journals and you'll see this corroborated. Also, I called the gambling commission to check this out in my home state of WA, as I'm working on a white paper on this very subject.

And my state commission agrees with what has been stated in every published book on the industry I've looked this up in 4 of them , that payout chips on the motherboard of the machine chassis are not set to "pay out" at any time in particular, that they function almost but not quite as randomly as the random number generator over the life of the machine, and that this generally random behavior is required in the base game by state and federal law.

The machines in my jurisdiction even on Indian land are regularly inspected by commission agents. Any changes on the gaming floor must be registered with the gambling commission first for departmental and public review, so none of this is secret.

When I asked the department rep on the phone if slot machines are set to pay out by a particular date in the year, she just laughed. Here's both an online and published source, widely respected, that refutes the contentions in the original unsigned comment above: Allow me to point out that euro coins don't have an equal distribution of weight hence the national side of the coin comes up more often.

Try it for yourself and see. I have always been unconvinced of the lack of bias in coin-tossing. Any coin is of a finite size.

When tossed, finite energy is pumped into the flick that gives it lift and spin. The coin, on any trial, will then rotate a certain finite number of half-spins while falling upwards, and a possibly larger number when it pauses and falls downwards towards the landing surface.

Humans have a tendency to flick coins with a roughly similar thrust on each toss and each human is, of course, the same height and has the same arm length roughly on every toss.

That leads to the anecdotal conclusion that all tossings of the same coin will have roughly the same number of half spins.

The only "random" factor in the process is then the starting condition; whether the coin is heads-up or not just prior to the toss.

I have the feeling, completely unsubstantiated by any evidence save personal observations of my own behaviour on a very few occasions when I remembered to note it, that an human tossing a coin repeatedly will force a seemingly random selection of heads-up positions before tossing the coin "just for fairness' sake".

In short, people fiddle the game to produce expected results. While this cooking of the books may not invalidate a single toss I suspect it biases experiments in repeated coin-tossing in favour of "randomness".

I would really like to know if I'm right but I see absolutely no way of unequivocally proving the point either way.

This intuitive feeling that coin tosses are sometimes forced by the tosser has bothered me sufficiently that I thought I would mention it.

I would be exceptionally pleased if Science could put the notion to bed finally and forever someday. The fallacious gambler works under the assumption that probability is ever-changing, depending on the previous outcomes.

Thus he would not assume. The corrolary is that for the fallacious gambler a fair coin does not exist unless it has previously produced perfectly even results and even then it becomes biased again after the very next toss.

The fallacious gambler cannot within his logic calculate 2 or more coin tosses using the same probability for each.

Hence the fallacy cannot be disproved using the toss of a fair coin, since the existence of such a coin is already contradicting the gambler's fallacy and it is rather unsurprising that any subsequent reasoning would do the same.

Ok, so it is very obvious that if we have a set of fair coin flips of TTT that the next flip has a. But among the next two flips we have a more complex set of possible outcomes, i.

Am I missing something about the gamblers fallacy or does it only really apply to expectations of the initial or next result?

If I'm not horribly misunderstanding the argument here, it should be clarified by linking to other articles, etc.

And, I'm perfectly willing to help with clean up. The theory is true, the math its accurate but in the real world and from a gambler point of view it doesn't work exactly like that.

A roulette table would have hundreds if not thousands of variables affecting the odds, a poker slot machine has a pseudo random number generator The list goes on.

For instance, a very well know method to bit the odds in roulette is to expend days or even weeks on a given table writing down the numbers, after you have obtained a significant sample its only a matter of entering the data on a computer and run an statistical analysis.

You will always find a deviation, the ball has a slightly bigger tendency to fall on certain area of the wheel, then you calculate your playing strategy according to those statistics, if you play smart and long enough the house looses.

Casinos of course hate this kind of thing, they will ban you if they find out what you are doing. Roulette makers spend a great deal of time fine tunning the tables in order to minimize the effect and make the system as random as possible, random generators on gambling machines use huge base lists, dices are manufactured as uniformly as possible, shapes with tolerances on the s of millimeters No matter how hard they try, Physical tolerances will cause a deviation from the mathematical odds.

The goal is to make those variations small enough to prevent anybody from taking advantage of them, but they will always be there. Its an intrinsic characteristics of any real physical system.

I've been banned from casinos in Europe for playing black jack in the way they like less Never cheated and for using this tactic playing roulette, takes time and self discipline, They've got so good at building those devices that the money earned is in the best possible scenario just enough to make a living, because all the precautions taken the deviations are really small, a mistake will set you a long way back.

Roulette is not a good game for a professional gambler but the method does work if done properly. The statement "This is how counting cards really works, when playing the game of blackjack.

The spurious skill of card-counting for profit is not based on either remembering which individual card values have been previously dealt, or on calculating the ongoing probabilities of individual card values appearing.

That this follows an example that uses a Jack specifically, in lieu of a value card generally , only serves to compound the error.

The first sentence of the article is "The Gambler's fallacy, also known as the Monte Carlo fallacy because its most famous example happened in a Monte Carlo casino in [1] or the fallacy of the maturity of chances, is the belief that if deviations from expected behaviour are observed in repeated independent trials of some random process then these deviations are likely to be evened out by opposite deviations in the future.

I have a major problem with the way this is stated. In a very specific and quantitative sense, it IS true that deviations from expected behavior are likely to be evened out by future results - not by opposite deviations exactly, but simply by virtue of the fact that future results will average to the mean, and there will eventually be many more than them than the original deviation.

That's called the law of large numbers , and it lies at the base of all of statistics. So I suppose the article's first sentence isn't exactly wrong, but I think it's potentially very misleading.

It ought to be re-phrased to make it clear that the fallacy is believing that the future results are in any way influenced by those already obtained, or to highlight more clearly the fallacious part in the sentence as is which is that the deviations will be evened out not simply by more data, but specifically by opposite deviations.

Unless someone else has any objection, I'll re-write the first sentence to something like this: The story of the events at Monte Carlo Casino in is itself questionable.

Something of this nature would surely have been reported in the press at the time, yet I have searched several online newspaper archives without finding any references to the event.

I removed a link to the inverse gambler's fallacy. The article with that title describes it as drawing the conclusion that there must have been many trials from observing an unlikely outcome.

The rather different concept this article was referring to was the belief that a long run of heads means that the next roll is outcome is likely to be heads.

Here are some sources that I'm considering for this page, and what they will contribute to the page:. Randomness and inductions from streaks: These researchers found that people are more likely to continue a streak when they are told that a non-random process is generating the results.

The more likely it is that a process is non-random, the more likely people are to continue the streaks. Useful explanation of the types of processes that are more likely to induce gambler's fallacy.

The gambler's fallacy and the hot hand: Empirical data from casinos. The Journal of Risk and Uncertainty 30, This is an observational study rather than an experiment, observing the behaviors of individuals in casinos.

I found it interesting that they also observed the "hot hand" phenomenon in gamblers as well - and that it's not just restricted to basketball.

The retrospective gambler's fallacy: Unlikely events, constructing the past, and multiple universes. Judgment and Decision Making, 4, This article introduces the retrospective gambler's fallacy seemingly rare event comes from a longer streak than a seemingly common event and ties it to real-world implications.

The researchers tie it to the "belief in a just world" and perhaps even hindsight bias the article talks about how memory is reconstructive.

The cognitive psychology of lottery gambling: Journal of Gambling Studies, 14, Ties the gambler's fallacy in with the representativeness and availability heuristic.

Defines gambler's fallacy as the belief that chance is self-correcting and fair. A gestalt approach to understanding the gambler's fallacy.

Canadian Journal of Experimental Psychology, 57 , Explains that simply telling people about the nature of randomness will not eliminate the gambler's fallacy.

Instead, the grouping of events determines whether or not gambler's fallacy occurs. Very interesting, and possibly a good source for a possible "solutions" section.

Biases in casino betting: The hot hand and the gambler's fallacy. Judgment and Decision Making, 1, Correlates hot hand and gambler's fallacy - people who exhibit one will also exhibit the other.

Introduces the possibility of a construct underlying both of these. One idea I had for possibly altering the structure of this article: If any of you would like to see some of the edits I'm planning for this page, you can check out my sandbox here.

This article was correctly assessed as a start. Huge tracts of it are not cited. The sources violate WP: It is clear the nominator was not familiar with or concerned with criteria at time of nomination and subsequently has not been interested because no work towards those criteria.

Demonstrated they are not interested in meeting criteria but meeting criteria. Suggest no one will bother to bring it up to GAN and I can't see this being done in a week.

It is entirely possible that the universe does have a 'memory' of events and that probability theory and the idea of randomness are not actually correct.

There is no way to prove probability theory. You can't prove probability theory by, for example, tossing a coin and counting results and comparing to expected results because you would actually have to use the theory to do that comparison.

The argument becomes circular. It is just one of the axioms we just accept in science. I work with probabilities and stats so I'm not saying it is wrong.

I'm pretty sure it is right and it's a great tool. As a result, the next flip will probably be tails. The odds for each and every flip are calculated independently from other flips.

For my lottery numbers, I chose 6, 14, 22, 35, 38, What did you choose? I chose 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. Those numbers will never come up!

Because of what is called the clustering illusion , we give the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 special meaning when arranged in that order, random chance is just as likely to produce a 1 as the first number as it is a 6.

Now the second number produced is only affected by the first selection in that the first number is no longer a possible choice, but still, the number 2 has the same odds of being selected as 14, and so on.

Please put all my chips on red Are you sure you want to do that? Red 21 just came up in the last spin. Put it on black 15 instead.

The dealer or whatever you call the person spinning the roulette wheel really should know better -- the fact that red 21 just came up is completely irrelevant to the chances that it will come up again for the next spin.

Remember, at least as far as casinos go, the odds are against you. Logically Fallacious is one of the most comprehensive collections of logical fallacies with all original examples and easy to understand descriptions; perfect for educators, debaters, or anyone who wants to improve his or her reasoning skills.

Over 10 hours of video and interactive learning. Go beyond the book! Sit back and learn fallacies the easy way—in just a few minutes per day, via e-mail delivery.

Have a podcast or know someone who does? Putting on a conference? Bennett is available for interviews and public speaking events.

### Gamblers Fallacy Video

The gambler's fallacy## Gamblers fallacy -

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*casino club hayuelos*pauses and falls downwards towards the landing surface. This presents a contrast to the gambler's fallacythe definition of which is described below.

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